Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 23.06.2025 01:39
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Several people killed in school shooting in Austria's second biggest city, police say - NBC News
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If white people had been slaves, would WLM be a thing right now?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.